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QUESTION 1

An Incident Management tool implements the following defect states; Open, Assigned, Solved,
Closed Consider the following defect report: Id T000561
Test Object "Warehouse Management' application Tester name; John Bishop
Date: 10th. April 2010 Test Case MRT558I
Status OPEN Severity Serious Priority
Problem- After inputting the Total Quantity item = 450 in the SV034 screen, the system shows an unexpected Error message=47
Correction: Developer name: Closing date:
Which of the following is a valid criticism of this report?

  1. A. The Priority, the Correction description and the Developer name are missing
  2. B. The version of the application is missing
  3. C. There is no link to the applicable requirement (traceability)
  4. D. The description is not highlighting the source of the problem

Correct Answer: B
A valid criticism of this report is that the version of the application is missing. The version of the application is an important piece of information that should be included in a defect report, as it helps to identify which release or build of the software product contains the defect. The version of the application can also help to reproduce and debug the defect, as different versions may have different behaviors or features. The other options are not valid criticisms of this report. The priority, the correction description and the developer name are not missing, but rather not applicable for this report. The priority is a measure of how urgently a defect needs to be fixed, which can be assigned by the project manager or the defect tracking system, not by the tester who reports the defect. The correction description and the developer name are information that are added after the defect has been resolved, not when it has been reported. There is no link to the applicable requirement (traceability) is not a valid criticism of this report, because traceability is not a mandatory attribute of a defect report, but rather an optional one. Traceability is a relationship between two or more entities (such as requirements, test cases, defects, etc.) that shows how they are related or dependent on each other. Traceability can help to verify that the requirements are met by the test cases and defects, but it is not essential for reporting a defect. The description is not highlighting the source of the problem is not a valid criticism of this report, because highlighting the source of the problem is not a responsibility of the tester who reports the defect, but rather of the developer who fixes the defect. The description should provide enough information to describe what happened when the defect occurred, such as input values, expected results, actual results, error messages, screenshots, etc., but it does not need to explain why or how it happened.
Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 140.

QUESTION 2

Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be describing component testing?

  1. A. It identifies defects in modules and classes.
  2. B. Simulators and stubs may be required.
  3. C. It mainly tests interfaces and interaction between components.
  4. D. It may be applied using a test-first approach.

Correct Answer: C
Component testing (also known as unit testing or module testing) is a level of testing that focuses on verifying the functionality and quality of individual software components (such as modules, classes, functions, methods, etc.). Component testing mainly tests interfaces and interaction between components, as well as internal logic and data structures of the components. Component testing may be applied using a test-first approach (such as test-driven development or behavior-driven development), where tests are written before the code is implemented. Component testing does not identify defects in modules and classes, as this is a result of component testing, not an objective. Simulators and stubs may be required for component testing, as they can simulate or replace missing or incomplete components or external systems that are needed for testing. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 19.

QUESTION 3

Given the following requirement: Requirement ID: 2 8
Requirement Description Additional Entrance Fee Detailed Description
An additional fee of S3 is charged during the weekend, but
1) Visitors aged under 7 are not charged.
2) Visitors aged 7 to 13 inclusive get a 20% discount off the additional fee.
3) Visitors aged greater than 65 get a 50% discount off the additional fee. Age should be an integer of 0 or above.
Weekend means Friday to Sunday inclusive. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

  1. A. Thursday is a valid input boundary value.
  2. B. A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age.
  3. C. $3.01 is a valid output boundary value.
  4. D. 7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.

Correct Answer: A
Boundary value analysis is a technique that tests boundary values between partitions of equivalent data. Boundary values are values at the edge of an equivalence partition or at the smallest incremental distance on either side of an edge. Boundary value analysis can be applied to both input and output values. Based on the given requirement, we can identify two input values: age and weekend. Age should be an integer of 0 or above, and weekend means Friday to Sunday inclusive. The following statement is not correct:
✑ A) Thursday is a valid input boundary value. This statement is not correct, as Thursday is not a boundary value for the input weekend. The boundary values for the input weekend are Friday and Sunday, as they are at the edge of the equivalence partition that represents weekend days. The following statements are correct:
✑ B) A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age. This statement is correct, as we can derive six valid test cases based on input age by using the minimum and maximum values for each equivalence partition defined by the requirement. The equivalence partitions for input age are: under 7 (0 to 6), 7 to 13 inclusive (7 to 13), and greater than 65 (66 and above). The minimum and maximum values for each partition are: 0 and 6, 7 and 13, and 66 and any value above it.
✑ C) $3.01 is a valid output boundary value. This statement is correct, as $3.01 is a boundary value for the output additional fee. The additional fee can have four possible values depending on the input age: $0 (for visitors aged under 7), $2.40 (for visitors aged 7 to 13 inclusive with a 20% discount), $1.50 (for visitors aged greater than 65 with a 50% discount), and $3 (for visitors aged between 14 and 65). The boundary values for the output additional fee are $0 and $3, as they are at the edge of an equivalence partition or at the smallest incremental distance on either side of an edge. Therefore, $3.01 is a valid output boundary value, as it is at the smallest incremental distance above $3.
✑ D) 7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.
This statement is correct, as 7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition that represents visitors aged 7 to 13 inclusive. This partition includes age 10, which is an internal value within the partition. Verified References: [A Study
Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 4, page 37-38.

QUESTION 4

Which of the following lists factors That contribute to PROJECT risks?

  1. A. skill and staff shortages; problems in defining the right requirements, contractual issues.
  2. B. skill and staff shortages; software does not perform its intended functions; problems in defining the right requirements.
  3. C. problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues; poor software quality characteristics.
  4. D. poor software quality characteristics; software does not perform its intended functions.

Correct Answer: A
Project risks are the uncertainties or threats that may affect the project objectives, such as scope, schedule, cost, and quality. According to the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, some of the factors that contribute to project risks are:
✑ Skill and staff shortages: This factor refers to the lack of adequate or qualified human resources to perform the project tasks. This may result in delays, errors, rework, or low productivity.
✑ Problems in defining the right requirements: This factor refers to the difficulties or ambiguities in eliciting, analyzing, specifying, validating, or managing the requirements of the project. This may result in misalignment, inconsistencies, gaps, or changes in the requirements, affecting the project scope and quality.
✑ Contractual issues: This factor refers to the challenges or disputes that may arise from the contractual agreements between the project parties, such as clients, suppliers, vendors, or subcontractors. This may result in legal, financial, or ethical risks, affecting the project delivery and satisfaction.
The other options are not correct because they list factors that contribute to PRODUCT risks, not project risks. Product risks are the uncertainties or threats that may affect the quality or functionality of the software product or system. Some of the factors that contribute to product risks are:
✑ Poor software quality characteristics: This factor refers to the lack of adherence or
compliance to the quality attributes or criteria of the software product or system, such as reliability, usability, security, performance, or maintainability. This may result in defects, failures, or dissatisfaction of the users or stakeholders.
✑ Software does not perform its intended functions: This factor refers to the deviation
or discrepancy between the expected and actual behavior or output of the software product or system. This may result in errors, faults, or malfunctions of the software product or system.
References = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, Chapter 1: Fundamentals of Testing, Section 1.5: Risks and Testing, Pages 14-16.

QUESTION 5

Which type of software development product can undergo static testing?

  1. A. Any software development product can undergo static testing, including requirements specifications, design specifications and code.
  2. B. Static tests should be performed on the installation and user guide documents as these documents are used by the end user.
  3. C. Static testing is done only on the code as part of the "code review" sessions Other documents are reviewed, but not by static testing.
  4. D. Static testing is done only on the requirements You need to execute the software in order to find defects in the code.

Correct Answer: A
Static testing is a form of testing that does not involve executing the software, but rather analyzing it for defects, errors, or violations of standards. Static testing can be applied to any software development product, including requirements specifications, design specifications, code, test cases, test plans, user manuals, etc. Static testing can be done by using various techniques such as reviews, inspections, walkthroughs, checklists, static analysis tools, etc. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 7.

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