Free CS0-003 Exam Braindumps

Pass your CompTIA CySA+ Certification Beta Exam exam with these free Questions and Answers

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QUESTION 26

A security analyst at a company called ACME Commercial notices there is outbound traffic to a host IP that resolves to https://offce365password.acme.co. The site's standard VPN logon page is
www.acme.com/logon. Which of the following is most likely true?

  1. A. This is a normal password change URL.
  2. B. The security operations center is performing a routine password audit.
  3. C. A new VPN gateway has been deployed
  4. D. A social engineering attack is underway

Correct Answer: D
for the outbound traffic to a host IP that resolves to https://offce365password.acme.co, while the site’s standard VPN logon page is www.acme.com/logon. A social engineering attack is a technique that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate people into performing actions or divulging information that benefit the attackers. A common type of social engineering attack is phishing, which involves sending fraudulent emails or other messages that appear to come from a legitimate source, such as a company or a colleague, and lure the recipients into clicking on malicious links or attachments, or entering their credentials or other sensitive information on fake websites. In this case, the attackers may have registered a domain name that looks similar to the company’s domain name, but with a typo (offce365 instead of office365), and set up a fake website that mimics the company’s VPN logon page. The attackers may have also sent phishing emails to the company’s employees, asking them to reset their passwords or log in to their VPN accounts using the malicious link. The security analyst should investigate the source and content of the phishing emails, and alert the employees not to click on any suspicious links or enter their credentials on any untrusted websites. Official References:
CS0-003 dumps exhibit https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
CS0-003 dumps exhibit https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
CS0-003 dumps exhibit https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered

QUESTION 27

A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is concerned that a specific threat actor who is known to target the company's business type may be able to breach the network and remain inside of it for an extended period of time.
Which of the following techniques should be performed to meet the CISO's goals?

  1. A. Vulnerability scanning
  2. B. Adversary emulation
  3. C. Passive discovery
  4. D. Bug bounty

Correct Answer: B
The correct answer is B. Adversary emulation.
Adversary emulation is a technique that involves mimicking the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of a specific threat actor or group to test the effectiveness of the security controls and incident response capabilities of an organization1. Adversary emulation can help identify and address the gaps and weaknesses in the security posture of an organization, as well as improve the readiness and skills of the security team. Adversary emulation can also help measure the dwell time, which is the duration that a threat actor remains undetected inside the network2.
The other options are not the best techniques to meet the CISO’s goals. Vulnerability scanning (A) is a technique that involves scanning the network and systems for known vulnerabilities, but it does not simulate a real attack or test the incident response capabilities. Passive discovery © is a technique that involves collecting information about the network and systems without sending any packets or probes, but it does not identify or exploit any vulnerabilities or test the security controls. Bug bounty (D) is a program that involves rewarding external researchers or hackers for finding and reporting vulnerabilities in an organization’s systems or applications, but it does not focus on a specific threat actor or group.

QUESTION 28

Which of the following is the best action to take after the conclusion of a security incident to improve incident response in the future?

  1. A. Develop a call tree to inform impacted users
  2. B. Schedule a review with all teams to discuss what occurred
  3. C. Create an executive summary to update company leadership
  4. D. Review regulatory compliance with public relations for official notification

Correct Answer: B
One of the best actions to take after the conclusion of a security incident to improve incident response in the future is to schedule a review with all teams to discuss what occurred, what went well, what went wrong, and what can be improved. This review is also known as a lessons learned session or an after-action report. The purpose of this review is to identify the root causes of the incident, evaluate the effectiveness of the incident response process, document any gaps or weaknesses in the security controls, and recommend corrective actions or preventive measures for future incidents. Official References:
https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack/

QUESTION 29

After a security assessment was done by a third-party consulting firm, the cybersecurity program recommended integrating DLP and CASB to reduce analyst alert fatigue. Which of the following is the best possible outcome that this effort hopes to achieve?

  1. A. SIEM ingestion logs are reduced by 20%.
  2. B. Phishing alerts drop by 20%.
  3. C. False positive rates drop to 20%.
  4. D. The MTTR decreases by 20%.

Correct Answer: D
The MTTR (Mean Time to Resolution) decreases by 20% is the best possible outcome that this effort hopes to achieve, as it reflects the improvement in the efficiency and effectiveness of the incident response process by reducing analyst alert fatigue. Analyst alert fatigue is a term that refers to the phenomenon of security analysts becoming overwhelmed, desensitized, or exhausted by the large number of alerts they receive from various security tools or systems, such as DLP (Data Loss Prevention) or CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker). DLP is a security solution that helps to prevent unauthorized access, use, or transfer of sensitive data, such as personal information, intellectual property, or financial records. CASB is a security solution that helps to monitor and control the use of cloud-based applications and services, such as SaaS (Software as a Service), PaaS (Platform as a Service), or IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service). Both DLP and CASB can generate alerts when they detect potential data breaches, policy violations, or malicious activities, but they can also produce false positives, irrelevant information, or duplicate notifications that can overwhelm or distract the security analysts. Analyst alert fatigue can have negative consequences for the security posture and performance of an organization, such as missing or ignoring critical alerts, delaying or skipping investigations or remediations, making errors or mistakes, or losing motivation or morale. Therefore, it is important to reduce analyst alert fatigue and optimize the alert management process by using various strategies, such as tuning the alert thresholds and rules, prioritizing and triaging the alerts based on severity and context, enriching and correlating the alerts with additional data sources, automating or orchestrating repetitive or low-level tasks or actions, or integrating and consolidating different security tools or systems into a unified platform. By reducing analyst alert fatigue and optimizing the alert management process, the effort hopes to achieve a decrease in the MTTR, which is a metric that measures the average time it takes to resolve an incident from the moment it is reported to the moment it is closed. A lower MTTR indicates a faster and more effective incident response process, which can help to minimize the impact and damage of security incidents, improve customer satisfaction and trust, and enhance security operations and outcomes. The other options are not as relevant or realistic as the MTTR decreases by 20%, as they do not reflect the best possible outcome that this effort hopes to achieve. SIEM ingestion logs are reduced by 20% is not a relevant outcome, as it does not indicate any improvement in the incident response process or any reduction in analyst alert fatigue. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a security solution that collects and analyzes data from various sources, such as logs, events, or alerts, and provides security monitoring, threat detection, and incident response capabilities. SIEM ingestion logs are records of the data that is ingested by the SIEM system from different sources. Reducing SIEM ingestion logs may imply less data volume or less data sources for the SIEM system, which may not necessarily improve its performance or accuracy. Phishing alerts drop by 20% is not a realistic outcome, as it does not depend on the integration of DLP and CASB or any reduction in analyst alert fatigue. Phishing alerts are notifications that indicate potential phishing attempts or attacks, such as fraudulent emails, websites, or messages that try to trick users into revealing sensitive information or installing malware. Phishing alerts can be generated by various security tools or systems, such as email security solutions, web security solutions, endpoint security solutions, or user awareness training programs. Reducing phishing alerts may imply less phishing attempts or attacks on the organization, which may not necessarily be influenced by the integration of DLP and CASB or any reduction in analyst alert fatigue. False positive rates drop to 20% is not a realistic outcome

QUESTION 30

A company receives a penetration test report summary from a third party. The report summary indicates a proxy has some patches that need to be applied. The proxy is sitting in a rack and is not being
used, as the company has replaced it with a new one. The CVE score of the vulnerability on the proxy is a 9.8. Which of the following best practices should the company follow with this proxy?

  1. A. Leave the proxy as is.
  2. B. Decomission the proxy.
  3. C. Migrate the proxy to the cloud.
  4. D. Patch the proxy

Correct Answer: B
The best practice that the company should follow with this proxy is to decommission the proxy. Decommissioning the proxy involves removing or disposing of the proxy from the rack and the network, as well as deleting or wiping any data or configuration on the proxy. Decommissioning the proxy can help eliminate the vulnerability on the proxy, as well as reduce the attack surface, complexity, or cost of maintaining the network. Decommissioning the proxy can also free up space or resources for other devices or systems that are in use or needed by the company.

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